51 Prospectus of a Public Company
Question : Every prospectus issued by or on behalf of a public company shall state which of the following information ?
A. Name and address of the registered office of the company
B. Details about underwriting of the issue
C. Details of directors
D. Details about trustees and their interest
E. Collateral objects of the business
Options:
(a) A, B, C and D only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) A, B and D only
Correct Answer: (c) A, B and C only
Explanation: As per Section 26 of the Companies Act, 2013, a prospectus must contain the name and address of the registered office, details of underwriting, and particulars of directors. It does not require details of trustees or collateral objects.
Q.52 Issue of Debentures
Question: Which of the following statements are correct?
A. A company may issue debentures with an option to convert them into shares, wholly or partly, at the time of redemption.
B. Such issue must be approved by a special resolution passed in a general meeting.
C. Debentures with voting rights can be issued.
D. Secured debentures cannot be issued.
E. The debenture trustee must take steps to protect the interests of debenture holders.
Options:
(a) B, C and E only
(b) A, B and E only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) C, D and E only
Correct Answer: (b) A, B and E only
Explanation: Under Section 71 of the Companies Act, 2013, companies may issue convertible debentures with approval by special resolution, and debenture trustees must safeguard debenture holders’ interests. Debentures with voting rights cannot be issued, and secured debentures can be issued.
Q.53 Fraud under the Indian Contract Act, 1872
Question: Fraud means and includes which of the following?
A. Suggesting as a fact something which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true
B. Passive concealment of a fact
C. A promise made without any intention of performing it
D. Any other act fitted to deceive
E. Any act which the law declares to be misrepresentation
Options:
(a) A, B, C and D only
(b) A, B and E only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, C and D only
Correct Answer: (d) A, C and D only
Explanation: According to Section 17 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, fraud includes false suggestion, promise without intention to perform, and any act fitted to deceive. Passive concealment is included only when there is a duty to disclose.
Q.54 Dicey’s Rule of Law
Question: Which of the following are the opinions of Prof. A.V. Dicey regarding the Rule of Law?
A. Absence of discretionary power to avoid arbitrariness
B. A person should suffer only for breach of law
C. Rights flow from customs and traditions recognized by courts
D. There was administrative law in England
E. Special administrative courts in France reflect the rule of law
Options:
(a) A, B, C and D only
(b) B, C, D and E only
(c) B, C and E only
(d) A, B and C only
Correct Answer: (d) A, B and C only
Explanation: Dicey emphasized absence of arbitrary power, equality before law, and rights derived from judicial decisions. He opposed administrative law and special courts.
Q.55 Protected System under IT Act, 2000
Question: Which statements are correct regarding a “protected system” under the Information Technology Act, 2000?
A. National Nodal Agency may declare any computer resource as a protected system.
B. Central Government prescribes information security practices for protected systems.
C. Protected systems relate to critical information infrastructure.
D. CERT-In has overall responsibility for protection of protected systems.
Options:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B and C only
(c) C and D only
(d) A, C and D only
Correct Answer: (b) B and C only
Explanation: Under Section 70 of the IT Act, 2000, the Central Government prescribes security practices, and protected systems relate to critical information infrastructure.
Q.56 Public Servants under IPC, 1860
Question: Who among the following are public servants under Section 21 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
A. Every commissioned officer of defence services
B. Every judge
C. Every officer of the Government
D. Chairman trustee of a private trust
E. President of a political party
Options:
(a) A, B and E only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, B and C only
Correct Answer: (d) A, B and C only
Explanation: Section 21 IPC expressly includes defence officers, judges, and government officers as public servants. Private trustees and political party presidents are not included.
Q.57 Essential elements of theft under the Indian Penal Code, 1860
Question: Which of the following are the essential elements of the offence of theft under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
A. Dishonest intention.
B. The property must be taken out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent.
C. The person in possession must be the owner of the property.
D. The property must be movable.
E. The taking away of the property must be permanent.
Options:
(a) A, B and D only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, C and D only
Correct Answer: (a) A, B and D only
Explanation: Under Section 378 of the IPC, theft consists of the following essentials:
- Dishonest intention to take property.
- The property must be movable.
- It must be taken out of the possession of another person.
- Such taking must be without that person’s consent.
- There must be some moving of the property to accomplish the taking.
It is not necessary that the person in possession is the owner (so C is incorrect), and the taking need not be permanent (so E is incorrect).
Q.58 Powers of the Supreme Court under Article 142
Question: Which of the following statements are correct regarding the powers of the Supreme Court of India under Article 142 of the Constitution of India?
A. The Supreme Court may pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
B. Such decree or order is enforceable throughout the territory of India.
C. The Supreme Court can exercise this power only when there is no existing law on the subject.
D. The power under Article 142 can be used to supplement, but not supplant, substantive law.
Options:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) A, C and D only
Correct Answer: (b) A, B and D only
Explanation: Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary to do complete justice, and such orders are enforceable across India. The Court has held that this power can be used to supplement existing law but not to override or supplant it. It is not restricted only to situations where no law exists.
Q.59 Provisions inserted in IPC by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
Question: Which of the following provisions were inserted in the Indian Penal Code by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013?
A. Section 326A
B. Section 326B
C. Section 166A
D. Section 166B
E. Section 228A
Options:
(a) B, C, D and E only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) B, C and E only
(d) A, B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (d) A, B, C and D only
Explanation: The 2013 Amendment inserted Sections 166A, 166B, 326A and 326B dealing with offences by public servants and acid attacks. Section 228A existed earlier (related to disclosure of identity of rape victims).
Q.60 Negligence
Question: Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Negligence is the breach of a legal duty towards another caused by omission.
B. Actionable negligence consists in neglect of ordinary care towards a person to whom a duty is owed.
C. Negligence is breach of a legal duty to take care which results in damage.
D. There is no difference between civil and criminal negligence.
E. The offence of death by negligence under IPC was amended in 2013.
Options:
(a) A, B and E only
(b) B and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) C and D only
Correct Answer: (c) A, B and C only
Explanation: Negligence involves breach of duty, lack of ordinary care, and resulting damage. Civil and criminal negligence differ in degree, and Section 304A IPC was not amended in 2013.
61. Question: Article 38 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice enumerates which of the following as sources of International Law?
A. All international conventions.
B. International custom, as evidence of a general practice accepted as law.
C. The general principles of law recognized by the United Nations.
D. The general principles of law recognized by civilized nations.
Options:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) A and B only
Correct Answer: (b) B and D only
Explanation: Article 38(1) of the Statute of the ICJ recognizes the following as sources of international law:
- International conventions (treaties), general or particular.
- International custom, as evidence of a general practice accepted as law.
- General principles of law recognized by civilized nations.
- Judicial decisions and teachings of highly qualified publicists as subsidiary means.
Q.62 Powers of Quasi-Judicial Bodies
Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. A quasi-judicial body may never review its own decisions even if there is a grave error of law.
B. A quasi-judicial body may review its own decisions if there is a grave error of law.
C. A quasi-judicial body has inherent power to review its own decisions.
D. A quasi-judicial body has the power to issue writs.
Options:
(a) A and C only
(b) B only
(c) A only
(d) B and D only
Correct Answer: (c) A only
Explanation: A quasi-judicial authority has no inherent power of review unless expressly conferred by statute, and it cannot issue writs.
Q.63 Dower (Mahr) under Muslim Law
Question: Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Dower is a consideration for surrender of the person by the wife.
B. Dower is the technical Anglo-Mohammedan term for ‘Mahr’ in Arabic.
C. Dower must be fixed at marriage, otherwise the marriage is void.
D. If dower is not fixed at marriage, law confers the right of dower on the wife.
Options:
(a) A and C only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) B and C only
Correct Answer: (b) A, B and D only
Explanation: Mahr (dower) is a consideration for marriage. Even if not fixed, the wife has a right to proper dower. Marriage is not void for absence of fixation.
Q.64 Saptapadi under Hindu Marriage Act
Question: Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Performance of Saptapadi before the sacred fire is obligatory for marriage.
B. Chanting of mantras is not necessary while performing Saptapadi.
C. Saptapadi was a customary ritual incorporated under the Hindu Marriage Act.
D. Kanyadana is not essential in Hindu marriage.
Options:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: Question withdrawn by NTA
Explanation: Due to ambiguity regarding rituals like mantra chanting and customary practices under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, the question was dropped by NTA.
Q.65 Speaker as Tribunal under Anti-Defection Law
Question:
In which case did the Supreme Court hold that while applying the anti-defection law, the Speaker of Lok Sabha functions as a tribunal?
A. S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India (1987)
B. I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007)
C. Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1992)
D. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997)
E. M.S.M. Sharma v. Shri Krishna Sharma (1959)
Options:
(a) B, C and E only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) C only
(d) D only
Correct Answer: (c) C only
Explanation: In Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1992), the Court held that the Speaker acts as a tribunal under the Tenth Schedule.
Q.66 Sale of Goods Act, 1930 – Match the Following
Question:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
| A. Specific goods in a deliverable state | Section 20 |
| B. Auction sale | Section 64 |
| C. Remedy for breach of warranty | Section 59 |
| D. Sale by one of joint owners | Section 28 |
Options:
(a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Section 20 – specific goods; Section 64 – auction sale; Section 59 – breach of warranty; Section 28 – joint owners.
Q.67 Parliament Powers – Comparative
Question: Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
| A. Limited powers of Parliament | India |
| B. Residuary powers to States | USA |
| C. Unlimited powers of Parliament | UK |
| D. Constitutional Council | France |
Options:
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: India – limited powers; USA – residuary to states; UK – parliamentary sovereignty; France – Constitutional Council.
Q.68 Human Rights Instruments – Year of Ratification (India)
Question:
Match List I with List II:
A. ICERD – 1979
B. ICCPR – 1968
C. Forced Labour Convention – 1954
D. Convention on Rights of the Child – 1992
Options:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: India ratified ICERD (1979), ICCPR (1968), Forced Labour Convention (1954), and CRC (1992).
Q.69 Parts of the Constitution – Match
Question:
Match List I with List II:
| Part | Subject |
| Part IX-B | Co-operative Societies |
| Part XIV-A | Tribunals |
| Part VIII | Union Territories |
| Part XVII | Official Language |
Options:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: Part IX-B – Co-operatives; XIV-A – Tribunals; VIII – UTs; XVII – Official Language.
Q.70 Contract Law Cases – Match
Question:
Match List I with List II:
| Case | Principle |
| A. Rose and Frank Co. v. Crompton Bros. Ltd. | Intention to create legal relations |
| B. Harris v. Nickerson | Invitation to offer |
| C. Olley v. Marlborough Court Ltd. | Standard form contract / terms after contract |
| D. Powell v. Lee | Acceptance must be communicated by acceptor |
(Options not fully pasted, but matching is as above.)
Correct Matching:
A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
Q.71. Match List I with List II
List I | List II
A. Registration of marriage | I. Section 112, Indian Evidence Act
B. Dowry death | II. Section 304B, IPC
C. Presumption of legitimacy of child | III. Section 113, Indian Evidence Act
D. Marriage religious ceremonies | IV. Section 8, Hindu Marriage Act
Options:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
✅ Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Registration of marriage → Section 8, Hindu Marriage Act
- Dowry death → Section 304B, IPC
- Presumption of legitimacy → Section 112, Evidence Act
- Religious ceremonies → Section 7, Hindu Marriage Act
Q.72. Match List I with List II
List I | List II
A. Customs | I. Corporation sole
B. Post Master General | II. Jural relations
C. Aristotle | III. Historical School
D. Hohfeld | IV. Distributive justice
Options:
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
✅ Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Customs → Historical School
- Post Master General → Corporation sole
- Aristotle → Distributive justice
- Hohfeld → Jural relations
Q.73. Match List I with List II
List I | List II
A. X v. Principal Secretary, Health & Family Welfare, NCT Delhi (2022) | I. Collaborative federal structure
B. Union of India v. Mohit Minerals (2022) | II. Right of all women to safe and legal abortion
C. Sahara India Real Estate Ltd. v. SEBI (2012) | III. Postponement of publication
D. NCT of Delhi v. Union of India (2018) | IV. Uncooperative federalism
Options:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- X case (2022) → Right to abortion for all women
- Mohit Minerals (2022) → Uncooperative federalism
- Sahara v. SEBI (2012) → Postponement of publication
- NCT Delhi v. Union of India (2018) → Collaborative federalism
Q.74. Match List I with List II
List I | List II
A. British North America Act | I. 1787
B. Australian Constitution Act | II. 1867
C. USA Constitution | III. 1689
D. UK Bill of Rights | IV. 1900
Options:
(a) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- British North America Act → 1867
- Australian Constitution Act → 1900
- USA Constitution → 1787
- UK Bill of Rights → 1689
Q.75. Match List I with List II
List I | List II
A. Promotion of international peace and security | I. Article 210
B. Conduct of business of Government of India | II. Article 176
C. Special address by the Governor | III. Article 77
D. Language to be used in the Legislature | IV. Article 51
Options:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(c) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- International peace → Article 51
- Conduct of business → Article 77
- Governor’s special address → Article 176
- Language in Legislature → Article 210
Q.76 Arrange the following cases in chronological order (Old to New):
A. Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation
B. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
C. Naz Foundation v. Government of NCT of Delhi
D. Ankit v. State of Haryana
Options:
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, C, D, A
(c) C, A, B, D
(d) D, A, B, C
Correct Answer: (c) C, A, B, D
Explanation:
- Naz Foundation v. Govt. of NCT Delhi (2009)
- Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation (2013)
- Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018)
- Ankit v. State of Haryana (2020)
Q.77 Arrange the following cases (Old to New) where death sentence was awarded:
A. Ediga Anamma v. State of Andhra Pradesh
B. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
C. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab
D. Vinay Sharma v. Union of India
E. Shabnam Khan v. Union of India
Options:
(a) D, B, C, E, A
(b) A, B, C, E, D
(c) E, D, C, A, B
(d) C, E, A, B, D
Correct Answer: (b) A, B, C, E, D
Explanation: Chronology: 1974 → 1980 → 1983 → 2015 → 2020.
Q.78 Which of the following most appropriately reflect the constitutional system of both India and USA?
A. Federal
B. Presidential
C. Democratic form of government
D. Unitary
E. Rule of Law
Options:
(a) A, B, E
(b) A, C, E
(c) B, D, E
(d) A, B, C, E
✅ Correct Answer: (b) A, C, E
Explanation: Both India and the USA are federal, democratic, and follow the rule of law. India is not presidential; the USA is not unitary.
Q.79 Arrange the following chapters of the IPC in ascending order:
A. General Exceptions
B. Offences against Public Tranquillity
C. Offences against Property
D. Offences against Human Body
E. Offences against the State
Options:
(a) B, C, D, E, A
(b) D, C, B, A, E
(c) A, E, B, D, C
(d) A, B, C, D, E
Correct Answer: (c) A, E, B, D, C
Explanation: IPC order: Chapter IV → VI → VIII → XVI → XVII.
Q.80 Arrange the following provisions as per first appearance in the Indian Contract Act, 1872:
A. Agreement void for uncertainty
B. Discharge of surety by release of principal debtor
C. Release of one co-surety does not discharge others
D. Co-sureties liable to contribute equally
E. Rights of surety on payment or performance
Options:
(a) A, C, D, B, E
(b) A, B, C, E, D
(c) A, C, E, D, B
(d) C, A, D, B, E
Correct Answer: (b) A, B, C, E, D
Explanation: Sections: 29 → 134 → 138 → 140 → 146.
Q.81 Arrange the following sections of the Companies Act, 2013 in descending order:
A. Execution of Bills of Exchange
B. Punishment for repeated default
C. Annual reports on government companies
D. Petition for winding up
E. Functions of Company Secretary
Options:
(a) C, D, E, A, B
(b) B, C, D, E, A
(c) C, A, E, D, B
(d) B, A, D, C, E
Correct Answer: (b) B, C, D, E, A
Explanation: Descending section order: 454 → 394 → 272 → 205 → 22.
Q.82 Arrange the following cases (Old to New):
A. Navtej Singh Johar v. UOI
B. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra
C. Shayara Bano v. UOI
D. Selvi v. State of Karnataka
E. Shankari Prasad v. UOI
Options:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) E, D, C, B, A
(c) E, B, D, C, A
(d) D, E, C, A, B
Correct Answer: (c) E, B, D, C, A
Explanation: Years: 1951 → 2002 → 2010 → 2017 → 2018.
Q.83 Arrange the following cases (New to Old):
A. Mukesh Singh v. NCT of Delhi
B. Yakub Abdul Razak Memon v. State of Maharashtra
C. Navneet Kaur v. Union of India
D. Mohd. Ajmal Kasab v. State of Maharashtra
E. A.S. Mohammed Rafi v. State of Tamil Nadu
Options:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
(d) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
Answer: Question withdrawn by NTA
Q.84 Arrange the following stages in proper sequence:
A. Intention
B. Preparation
C. Act
D. Conviction
E. Sentence
Options:
(a) E, D, C, B, A
(b) A, B, C, D, E
(c) B, C, D, E, A
(d) D, C, B, A, E
Correct Answer: (b) A, B, C, D, E
Explanation: Crime progresses from intention → preparation → act → conviction → sentence.
Q.85 Arrange the following cases (Old to New):
A. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
B. Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu
C. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
E. Azeez Basha v. Union of India
Options:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) E, D, C, B, A
(c) E, A, D, B, C
(d) A, E, D, B, C
Correct Answer: (d) A, E, D, B, C
Explanation: 1964 → 1967 → 1980 → 1992 → 1997.
Q.86 Assertion–Reason
Assertion (A): Possession is said to be nine points of the law.
Reason (R): A person in possession has a better right against the whole world except the true owner.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) Both correct but R does not explain A
(c) A correct, R incorrect
(d) A incorrect, R correct
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: Possession gives strong legal protection, except against the true owner.
Q.87 Assertion–Reason
Assertion (A): Stare decisis is an important principle of precedent.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court can depart from its earlier view if necessary.
Options: Same as above.
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: Both are true, but the power to depart does not explain the doctrine itself.
Q.88 Assertion–Reason
Assertion (A): A bigamous marriage is voidable under Hindu law.
Reason (R): Children of void marriages are legitimate.
Options: Same as above.
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: Bigamous marriage is void (Section 11, HMA), not voidable. But children are legitimate under Section 16.
Q.89 Statements
Statement I: Law originates from the general consciousness (Volksgeist) of people.
Statement II: Law is a product and manifestation of people’s spirit.
Options:
(a) Both correct
(b) Both incorrect
(c) I correct, II incorrect
(d) I incorrect, II correct
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: Both reflect Savigny’s Historical School theory.
Q.90 Statements
Statement I: Salmond says common law is judge-made law.
Statement II: Pollock says common law is customary law.
Options: Same as above.
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: Both jurists correctly describe the sources of common law.
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